Volitions Advocate
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I find this a little bit confusing, and I'm a 2nd year theory student. We've been focusing a lot on diatonic harmony and haven't yet gone into the really interesting stuff. I know how to play a pentatonic scale on my guitar but tonally I don't really know what is going on there. I've never tried to analyze it. I also don't really have an answer for you but I do have a question that is related to the debate about modes.
i've never considered modes by their diatonic tonal centre. I doesn't make a lot of sense to me. Probably because I learned about modes in history and oral skills before i learned about them in theory.
if an Ionian mode is a major scale and aeolian is a minor scale, when we are talking about modes why do we default to one of them? Technically modes have little to do with diatonic harmony because they really were 2 different systems entirely. Modal music was the norm for a long time because people didn't understand harmony, even when harmony was first introduced, for the longest time it was mostly parallel fourths slapped onto a chant, this is one step up from gregorian chant, but its still super old. Most of todays diatonic theory came from people analysing Bach chorales and fugues, and he never really wrote in modes, at least not in any of the really famous stuff that the theoreticians of the time wrote about. It doesn't make sense to me to say Mixolydian in F Major. It's like running an apple IIe emulator on your Windows 7 64-bit i7. (yeah. im a computer scientist too so I can nerd out in either direction ) If you're trying to play something around a mixolydian mode but acting as though the ionian scale degree 1 is your tonic, then really you're just playing some sort of .... hypo-ionain aren't you? Maybe I just haven't learned it yet but I dont understand how modal harmony works. Because when modes were used there was no harmony. What is a dominant chord in mixolydian? is it still V V 7or VII 6? If you're playing C mixolydian, which is the first transposed mode, then you're playing with the same key signature of diatonic F major, but V in F is a C chord, which is supposed to be your tonic in C mixolydian. So if you're viewing your mode by its diatonic centre. doesn't that basically just mean you're playing the relative ionian of your mixolydian? meaning why are you playing in modes anyway? you're obviously using diatonic harmony.
I find this a little confusing.
Lately I've been taking on the viewpoint that it's all moot anyway because we're using the equal temperament of the piano which is all screwed up and only actually works on a piano anyway. The theoreticians took Bachs Well tempered clavier and use it to push their agenda of using equal temperament, but Bach used "Well" temperament while composing them. Lucky for me as a Digial Audio student rather than a conservatory student, I'm taking the scientific approach and beginning to think in terms of Hz rather than pitch, which helps me bypass the confusion of different temperaments on different instruments anyway. That was a tangent, but this stuff is on my mind. sorry.
i've never considered modes by their diatonic tonal centre. I doesn't make a lot of sense to me. Probably because I learned about modes in history and oral skills before i learned about them in theory.
if an Ionian mode is a major scale and aeolian is a minor scale, when we are talking about modes why do we default to one of them? Technically modes have little to do with diatonic harmony because they really were 2 different systems entirely. Modal music was the norm for a long time because people didn't understand harmony, even when harmony was first introduced, for the longest time it was mostly parallel fourths slapped onto a chant, this is one step up from gregorian chant, but its still super old. Most of todays diatonic theory came from people analysing Bach chorales and fugues, and he never really wrote in modes, at least not in any of the really famous stuff that the theoreticians of the time wrote about. It doesn't make sense to me to say Mixolydian in F Major. It's like running an apple IIe emulator on your Windows 7 64-bit i7. (yeah. im a computer scientist too so I can nerd out in either direction ) If you're trying to play something around a mixolydian mode but acting as though the ionian scale degree 1 is your tonic, then really you're just playing some sort of .... hypo-ionain aren't you? Maybe I just haven't learned it yet but I dont understand how modal harmony works. Because when modes were used there was no harmony. What is a dominant chord in mixolydian? is it still V V 7or VII 6? If you're playing C mixolydian, which is the first transposed mode, then you're playing with the same key signature of diatonic F major, but V in F is a C chord, which is supposed to be your tonic in C mixolydian. So if you're viewing your mode by its diatonic centre. doesn't that basically just mean you're playing the relative ionian of your mixolydian? meaning why are you playing in modes anyway? you're obviously using diatonic harmony.
I find this a little confusing.
Lately I've been taking on the viewpoint that it's all moot anyway because we're using the equal temperament of the piano which is all screwed up and only actually works on a piano anyway. The theoreticians took Bachs Well tempered clavier and use it to push their agenda of using equal temperament, but Bach used "Well" temperament while composing them. Lucky for me as a Digial Audio student rather than a conservatory student, I'm taking the scientific approach and beginning to think in terms of Hz rather than pitch, which helps me bypass the confusion of different temperaments on different instruments anyway. That was a tangent, but this stuff is on my mind. sorry.